Reference no: EM1311002

Calculation of After-Tax Cost of Debt and Cost of Preferred Stock and Cost of Equity and WACC under CAPM.

Al Hansen, the newly appointed vice president of finance of Berkshire Instruments, was eager to talk to his investment banker about future financing for the firm. One of Al's first assignments was to determine the firm's cost of capital. In assessing the weights to use in computing the cost of capital, he examined the current balance sheet, presented in Figure 1.

In their discussion, Al and his investment banker determined that the current mix in the capital structure was very close to optimal and that Berkshire Instruments should continue with it in the future. Of some concern was the appropriate cost to assign to each of the elements in the capital structure. Al Hansen requested that his administrative assistant provide data on what the cost to issue debt and preferred stock and been in the past. The information is provided in Figure 2.

When Al got the data, he felt he was making real progress toward determining the cost of capital for the firm. However, his investment banker indicated that he was going about the process toward determining the cost of capital for the firm. However, his investment banker indicated that he was going about the process in an incorrect manner. The important issue is the current cost of funds, not the historical cost. The banker suggested that a comparable firm in the industry, in terms of size and bond rating (BAA), Rollins Instrument, had issued bonds a year and a half ago for 9.3 percent interest at a $1,000 par value, and the bonds were currently selling for $890. The bonds had 20 years remaining to maturity. The banker also observed that Rollings Instruments had just issued preferred stock at $60 per share, and the preferred stock paid an annual dividend of $4.80.

In terms of cost of common equity, the banker suggested that Al Hansen use the divided valuation model as a first approach to determining cost of equity. Based on that approach, Al observed that earnings were $3 a share and that 40 percent would be paid out of dividends (D1). The current stock price was $25. Dividends in the last four years had grown from 82 cents to the current value.
The banker indicated that underwriting cost (flotation cost) on a preferred stock issue would be $2.60 per share on common stock. Al Hansen further observed that this firm was in a 35 percent marginal tax bracket.

With all this information in hand, Al Hansen sat down to determine his firm's cost of capital. He was a little confused about computing the firm's cost of common equity. He knew there were two different formulas: one for the cost of retained earnings and one for the cost of new common stock. His investment banker suggested he follow the normally accepted approach used in determining the marginal cost of capital first determine the cost of capital for as large a capital structure as current retained will support; then, determine the cost of capital based on exclusively using new common stock.

1) Determine the weighted average cost of capital based on using retained earnings in the capital structure. The percentage composition in the capital structure for bonds, preferred stock and common equity should be based on the current capital structure of long-term financing as shown in Figure 1 (it adds up to $18 million). Common equity will represent 60 percent of financing throughout this case. Use Rollins

Instruments data to calculate the cost of preferred stock and debt.

Ke = D1 _______ + g P0

Ke = required rate of return

D1 = Divided at the end of the first year (or period)

P0 = Price of stock today

g = Constant growth rate in dividends

2) Recomputed the weighted average cost of capital based on using new common stock in the capital structure.  The weights remain the same, only common equity is now supplied by new common stock, rather than by retained earnings.

1. After how much new financing will this increase in the cost of capital take place?  Determine this by dividing retained earnings by the percent of common equity in the capital structure. 

3) Assume the investment banker also wishes to use the capital asset pricing model to compute the cost (required return on common stock

CPAM (capital asset pricing model)

K_j = R_f  + B(K_m - R_f)

K_j =       required return on common stock

R_f  =     Risk-free rate of return; usually the current rate on Treasury bill securities

B  =      Beta coefficient.  The beta measures the historical volatility of an individual's stock's return relative to a stock market index.  A beta greater than 1 indicates volatility (price movements) than the market, while the reverse would be true for a beta less than 1.

K_m =     Return in the market as measured by an appropriate index

1. Assume R_f  =    6 percent, B is 1.25, K_m is 13 percent.  What is the value of K_j?  And how does this compare to the value of K_e computed in question 1?