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We have two economic factors ??1 and ??2 in a two-factor APT model. We have the following data on three well-diversified portfolios.
Asset
Expected return
bi1
bi2
A
7.8%
2
3
B
4.6%
-1
C
2.2%
-2
If the risk-free rate is 1%, is there any arbitrage opportunity in the market?
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